Post by David JohnstonPost by thegetPost by David JohnstonPost by m***@earthlink.net- Show quoted text -
Post by ray o'harathat its nothing new.
Except that now the Supreme Court has effectively re-written the
Constitution on the fly.
No, it has refused to re-write the Constitution on the fly. There is
nothing in the Constitution saying that the government can't give
public land to a private enterprise.
Is it your position that if the constitution doesn't grant gov't a
power the gov't has that power?
Actually it's my position that whatever is not forbidden, is allowed
in general. People (and corporations) can do whatever they want as
long as there isn't a law against it. Governments can pass whatever
law they want as long as there is no constitutional provision against
it (and they can weather the public reaction). For that reason the
constitution doesn't not so much give powers to the government, as it
does restrict the government from certain powers, (and try to set
which particular governmental parts win when they argue about a given
issue).
We have fundamentally different understandings of how the ocnstitution
is supposed to work. If your interpretation is correect, then it would
seem that the long list of powers granted to congress in Article I,
section 8, was unnecessary, as congress could have just voted those
powers for themselves. I wonder why the authors bothered if this is
the case?
Post by David JohnstonPost by thegetPost by David JohnstonThere is something in the
Constitution saying that the government can take private land
and make it public.
The relevant phrase is: "nor shall private property be taken for public
use without just compensation ."
Which to my mind imples that the gov't may take land for a "public
use".
We might argue about what this means. A public road or public school
would certainly be a public use. A privately owned railroad, even if a
common carrier, is a bit questionable in my mind. Building a privately
owned manufacturing facitlity? I'm having a little bit of trouble with
that one.
Maybe, but they've been doing it with no legal problems until the
people affected happened to be relatively affluent. There are decades
of "urban redevelopment" precedent to the effect that "public use" is
whatever the city government says it is. Ignoring precedent in favour
of what you think the Constitution _should_ mean is the very
definition of judicial activism.
If words in the USC mean whatever someone says they mean, and not what
they may be reasonably asserted to mean, then we might as well not have
a constitution at all.
My understanding is that the USSC is not bound my it's prior decisions,
and therefore, rectifying this problem might not seen as judicial
activism.
Reinforcing precedent that wrongfully interpreted the USC, when you
know better, may be seen as judicial activism too.
Post by David JohnstonThat the moderately affluent weren't
foresighted to challenge what might be regarded as an erosion of
property rights as long as it didn't impinge on them is perhaps
unfortunate but if we are to disavow "judicial activism", their only
recourse is legislative.
Having discovered that a mistake has been made, the most desireable
outcome is to attempt to correct it.
Theget